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The Modern Antiquarian Forum » Neanderthals v Humans |
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Littlestone 5386 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 19:40
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Thank you. Yes, it is the (thread’s) originator’s prerogative to close a thread if he or she so chooses (that’s why the option is there) and there's absolutely no difficulty starting a new thread from the original (a couple of clicks will do it) if people want to. Meanwhile (and to clarify things as you seem to be having a little difficulty keeping up with the crux of this thread) I asked originally if, “...they (Neanderthals) might not have been the ‘builders’ of some of our ‘simpler’ stone structures.” That’s the topic (and thanks to those who have addressed it). The topic Scots/Picts/Celts/Romans/Saxons/etc, interesting as that might be, doesn’t belong on this thread (nor even on TMA I’d venture to suggest) but who knows, perhaps you’d like to start a thread under the title Scots/Picts/Celts/Romans/Saxons/etc and see whether or not it survives the TMA remit?
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Harryshill 510 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 19:46
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As I said, I have no desire to get caught up in an argument. So, I stand corrected.
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GLADMAN 950 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 19:48
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wideford wrote: 1. Until fairly recently the dominant theory was that the Picts were non-IE and therefore the language 2. The union of Scotland by Kenneth MacAlpin is commonly held to be due to his satisfying both Pictish and Gaelic rules of succession 3. Working from a Scottish document now in France it is suggested the union wasn't completed until a lot later, that after Cinaed's death the legitimate successor was murdered and a usurper removed all other potential kings apart from his own lineage (though of course as last of the mormaers of Moray Lulach the Fool, son of MacBeath, was the last legitimate Pictish contender much much later) Thanks Wideford. Can you recommend any reading on the subject?
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Littlestone 5386 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 19:50
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Perhaps better not to get involved with superfluous posts on other people’s threads then? Meanwhile you might try starting a thread of your own – new blood (opinions, ideas etc) are always welcome.
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Harryshill 510 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 20:00
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Littlestone wrote: Perhaps better not to get involved with superfluous posts on other people’s threads then? Meanwhile you might try starting a thread of your own – new blood (opinions, ideas etc) are always welcome. I don't understand your anger. I have opinions like everybody else. I posted mine as it it as viable as anybody else's and that it what we are her for. Now, if I have upset you then I'm sorry, it wasn't my intention. But never the less, I disagree with you on this subject and that isn't going to change anytime soon.
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tiompan 5758 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 20:08
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wideford wrote: 1. Until fairly recently the dominant theory was that the Picts were non-IE and therefore the language 2. The union of Scotland by Kenneth MacAlpin is commonly held to be due to his satisfying both Pictish and Gaelic rules of succession 3. Working from a Scottish document now in France it is suggested the union wasn't completed until a lot later, that after Cinaed's death the legitimate successor was murdered and a usurper removed all other potential kings apart from his own lineage (though of course as last of the mormaers of Moray Lulach the Fool, son of MacBeath, was the last legitimate Pictish contender much much later) 1)Katherine Forsyth is quite good for Pictish language studies .Pictish being non IEdates back to at least Zimmer 19th C and is no longer considered tenable . 2) Agree 3) I think you may be referring to the Poppleton manuscript some of which is very useful but other parts e.g. the De Situ Albanie is now considered as accurate as the other medieval histories i.e. inaccurate .
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Harryshill 510 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 20:18
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tiompan wrote: wideford wrote: 1. Until fairly recently the dominant theory was that the Picts were non-IE and therefore the language 2. The union of Scotland by Kenneth MacAlpin is commonly held to be due to his satisfying both Pictish and Gaelic rules of succession 3. Working from a Scottish document now in France it is suggested the union wasn't completed until a lot later, that after Cinaed's death the legitimate successor was murdered and a usurper removed all other potential kings apart from his own lineage (though of course as last of the mormaers of Moray Lulach the Fool, son of MacBeath, was the last legitimate Pictish contender much much later) 1)Katherine Forsyth is quite good for Pictish language studies .Pictish being non IEdates back to at least Zimmer 19th C and is no longer considered tenable . 2) Agree 3) I think you may be referring to the Poppleton manuscript some of which is very useful but other parts e.g. the De Situ Albanie is now considered as accurate as the other medieval histories i.e. inaccurate . This is subject up until now that I have had no knowledge of at all. Thank you both for the info.
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tiompan 5758 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 20:53
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Harryshill wrote: tiompan wrote: wideford wrote: 1. Until fairly recently the dominant theory was that the Picts were non-IE and therefore the language 2. The union of Scotland by Kenneth MacAlpin is commonly held to be due to his satisfying both Pictish and Gaelic rules of succession 3. Working from a Scottish document now in France it is suggested the union wasn't completed until a lot later, that after Cinaed's death the legitimate successor was murdered and a usurper removed all other potential kings apart from his own lineage (though of course as last of the mormaers of Moray Lulach the Fool, son of MacBeath, was the last legitimate Pictish contender much much later) 1)Katherine Forsyth is quite good for Pictish language studies .Pictish being non IEdates back to at least Zimmer 19th C and is no longer considered tenable . 2) Agree 3) I think you may be referring to the Poppleton manuscript some of which is very useful but other parts e.g. the De Situ Albanie is now considered as accurate as the other medieval histories i.e. inaccurate . This is subject up until now that I have had no knowledge of at all. Thank you both for the info. Get interested in Pictish symbols at your peril , it's worse than Stonehenge and rock art combined .
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Harryshill 510 posts |
Nov 04, 2012, 20:56
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tiompan wrote: Harryshill wrote: tiompan wrote: wideford wrote: 1. Until fairly recently the dominant theory was that the Picts were non-IE and therefore the language 2. The union of Scotland by Kenneth MacAlpin is commonly held to be due to his satisfying both Pictish and Gaelic rules of succession 3. Working from a Scottish document now in France it is suggested the union wasn't completed until a lot later, that after Cinaed's death the legitimate successor was murdered and a usurper removed all other potential kings apart from his own lineage (though of course as last of the mormaers of Moray Lulach the Fool, son of MacBeath, was the last legitimate Pictish contender much much later) 1)Katherine Forsyth is quite good for Pictish language studies .Pictish being non IEdates back to at least Zimmer 19th C and is no longer considered tenable . 2) Agree 3) I think you may be referring to the Poppleton manuscript some of which is very useful but other parts e.g. the De Situ Albanie is now considered as accurate as the other medieval histories i.e. inaccurate . This is subject up until now that I have had no knowledge of at all. Thank you both for the info. Get interested in Pictish symbols at your peril , it's worse than Stonehenge and rock art combined . Lol. I consider myself fair warned.
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Littlestone 5386 posts |
Edited Nov 04, 2012, 21:15
Nov 04, 2012, 21:13
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No anger at all Mr H, but I repeat, this is a thread about Neanderthals v Humans, not about Scots/Picts/Celts/Romans/Saxons/etc. If you want to discuss that please open a thread of your own on the subject and do it there. Thank you.
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