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Dog 3000
Dog 3000
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Re: What was the question again
Sep 22, 2003, 19:11
Oh that . . .

"If capitalism is (in it's objectivism) fundamentally opposed to 'morals', and the 'use of force', why oh why does 21stC capitalism take the side of the 'moralist ' warmongers who reduce the whole world to 'good vs evil'???"

1. What makes you believe capitalism is "objective" any more than anything that is "not-capitalism"?

2. Who says capitalism is "fundamentally opposed to morals and the use of force"? That's just plain weird. I don't know of any kind of system that doesn't "use force" in some circumstances, and all "systems" have a moral basis.

3. Capitalism doesn't "take sides" -- INDIVIDUALS take sides and use concepts like "capitalism" (or "religion" or whatever) to justify their positons.

That's why I started by asking questions about what you think you mean by "capitalism" and trying to look at the assumptions underlying the term as you (and some others around here) use it.

Does "warmongering" flow from capitalism, or has it been around as long as human civilization has existed? I'd say the latter -- in today's world you could say (and Marx did say) politics is shaped by "capitalism", whereas in Europe 1000 years ago it was shaped by "feudalism" and "theocracy."

War itself precedes all these other concepts meant to describe social structures.
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