>Do some people without televisions still buy >consumer products? Do some people who watch >adverts never buy the products being advertised?
>
>If the answer to either question is "yes", then >licence fees and ad revenues are fundamentally >different.
Is that still so if, as is the case, some people with a TV never watch BBC?
>To draw an equivalency between them is therefore >unjustified.
Hmmm, more a comparison than an equivalency.
>To suggest there are equivalent levels of coercion >mystifies me.
I'm not saying there's equivalent levels of coercion (although it's impossible to opt out of the advertising budget for products you buy), but I am saying there's an equivalent level of payment made for a TV service.
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