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YerArseInParsley
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Re: The equivalency of injustice
Oct 28, 2002, 20:08
"The primary (overshadowing all others) "evil" in Hitler's act is not the anti-semitic motivation. If it were; then the man who smirks that once in his life is just as "patently evil" as Hitler. No, the primary injustice is the torture and murder of 6 million."


No the primary injustice is the dehumanisation of 'the others' that allows the genocide to continue, whether it be expressed by subtle discrimination or outright genocide its the same motivation.

Bear in mind that when the Scots start genociding the english, then I am your only defender.

"Similarly, drawing an equivalency between Scotland and Palestine simply because of a identity of motive, is ignoring the fact that palestinian people are murdered daily by their oppressors, live herded into refugee camps under incredible curfews, have their infrastructure systematically destroyed by an occupying military, are subjected to random internment and end up reaching for an automatic weapon before they are 10.
Unless there's some serious media censorship going on; i suspect that's not happening in Scotland."

No. thats not what is happening in Scotland today, I agree, though it has happened in the past. There are examples closer to home that we could use to illustrate your example before we move onto the Scots or Palestinians, does that mean the Scots would not be better served by their own local parliament ? Palestine is not the only subjectated country, and the rules for subjectation do not start with Israeli rules.


The English oppress the Scots. I'm not whining about that, its the fault of the Scots more than than the English, but it is a fact that is demonstratable.

'All just my opinion, y'dig?'
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